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Order for Enforcement of the Act on Confirmation, etc. of Release Amounts of Specific Chemical Substances in the Environment and Promotion of Improvements to the Management Thereof - Cabinet Order No. 356 of 2008

Order for Enforcement of the Act on Confirmation, etc. of Release Amounts of Specific Chemical

Substances in the Environment and Promotion of

Improvements to the Management Thereof

(Cabinet Order No. 138 of March 29, 2000) The Cabinet hereby enacts this Cabinet Order based on the provisions of
Article 2, paragraph (2), paragraph (3), paragraph (5) and paragraph (6), and
Article 21 of the Act on Confirmation, etc. of Release Amounts of Specific
Chemical Substances in the Environment and Promotion of Improvements to the
Management Thereof (Act No. 86 of 1999).
(Class I Designated Chemical Substances)
Article 1 Class I Designated Chemical Substances set forth in Article 2,
paragraph (2) of the Act on Confirmation, etc. of Release Amounts of Specific Chemical Substances in the Environment and Promotion of Improvements to the Management Thereof (hereinafter referred to as the "Act") shall be as
prescribed in Appended Table 1.
(Class II Designated Chemical Substances)
Article 2 Class II Designated Chemical Substances set forth in Article 2, paragraph (3) of the Act shall be as prescribed in Appended Table 2.
(Types of Business)
Article 3 Types of business specified by Cabinet Order as set forth in Article 2, paragraph (5) of the Act shall be as follows:
(i) Metal mining
(ii) Crude petroleum and natural gas production
(iii) Manufacturing
(iv) Production, transmission, and distribution of electricity
(v) Gas production and distribution
(vi) Heat supply
(vii) Sewerage
(viii) Railway transport
(ix) Warehousing (limited to warehousing to store farm products or to store gas or liquid in a storage tank)
(x) Petroleum wholesale business
(xi) Iron scrap wholesale business (limited to the wholesale business of collecting substances contained in vehicle air conditioners or removing
vehicle air conditioners installed in vehicle bodies)
(xii) Motor vehicles wholesale business (limited to the wholesale business of collecting substances contained in vehicle air conditioners)
(xiii) Fuel retail business
(xiv) Laundries
(xv) Photographic studios
(xvi) Automobile maintenance (garage) business
(xvii) Machine repair shops
(xviii) Commodity inspection business
(xix) Measurement certification business (excluding general measurement certification business)
(xx) Domestic waste disposal business (limited to household waste disposal
business)
(xxi) Industrial waste disposal business (including special controlled industrial waste disposal business)
(xxii) Medical and other health business
(xxiii) Higher education institutions (including adjunct facilities and excluding those pertaining only to humanities)
(xxiv) Natural science research institutes
(Requirements for Business Operators Handling Class I Designated Chemical
Substances, etc.)
Article 4 Requirements specified by Cabinet Order other than those listed in the items of Article 2, paragraph (5) of the Act shall be as follows.
(i) The person shall fall under any of the following:
(a) A person having a place of business at which the person uses, in the
course of business activities during the fiscal year, 1 ton or more of any of the Class I Designated Chemical Substances (including those contained in products (meaning products as prescribed in Article 2, paragraph (5), item (i) of the Act; the same shall apply in (b)) that the person handles in the course of business activities during said fiscal year) other than Specific
Class I Designated Chemical Substances (meaning Class I Designated
Chemical Substances listed in (xxxiii), (lvi), (lxxv), (lxxxviii), (xciv), (ccxliii), (cccv), (cccix), (cccxxxii), (cccli), (ccclxxxv), (cccxciv), (cccxcvii), (cd), and
(cdxi) of Appended Table 1; the same shall apply in (b)) (when a Class I Designated Chemical Substance is any of the following 1. to 16., such "1 ton or more" refers to the mass of the relevant substance specified in 1. to
16. respectively; such mass shall be referred to as the "Mass of a Class I Designated Chemical Substance" in the following Article):
1. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (i) of Appended
Table 1: zinc
2. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (xxxi) of Appended
Table 1: antimony
3. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (xliv) of Appended
Table 1: indium
4. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (lxxxii) of
Appended Table 1: silver
5. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (lxxxvii) of
Appended Table 1: chromium
6. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (cxxxii) of
Appended Table 1: cobalt
7. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (cxliv) of Appended
Table 1: cyanogen
8. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (ccxxxvii) of
Appended Table 1: mercury
9. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (ccxxxix) of
Appended Table 1: tin
10. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (ccxlii) of
Appended Table 1: selenium
11. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (cclxxii) of
Appended Table 1: copper
12. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (cccxxi) of
Appended Table 1: vanadium
13. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (ccclxxiv) of
Appended Table 1: fluorine
14. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (cdv) of Appended
Table 1: boron
15. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (cdxii) of
Appended Table 1: manganese
16. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (cdliii) of
Appended Table 1: molybdenum
(b) A person having a place of business at which the person uses, in the
course of business activities during the fiscal year, 0.5 tons or more of any of the Specific Class I Designated Chemical Substances (including those contained in products that the person handles in the course of business
activities during said fiscal year) (when a Specific Class I Designated
Chemical Substance is any of the following 1. to 6., such "0.5 tons or more"
refers to the mass of the relevant substance specified respectively in 1. to 6. that said Specific Class I Designated Chemical Substance contains shall
be; such mass shall be referred to as the "Mass of a Specific Class I
Designated Chemical Substance" in the following Article):
1. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (lxxv) of Appended
Table 1: cadmium
2. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (lxxxviii) of
Appended Table 1: chromium
3. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (cccv) of Appended
Table 1: lead
4. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (cccix) of Appended
Table 1: nickel
5. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (cccxxxii) of
Appended Table 1: arsenic
6. The Class I Designated Chemical Substance listed in (cccxciv) of
Appended Table 1: beryllium
(c) Regarding a person who engages in a type of business listed in item (i) or item (ii) of the preceding Article, the person shall have established a
facility specified by Ordinance of the Ministry of Economy, Trade and
Industry set forth in Article 13, paragraph (1) of the Mine Safety Act (Act
No. 70 of 1949).
(d) Regarding a person who engages in a type of business listed in item (vii)
of the preceding Article, the person shall have established a final sewage treatment facility.
(e) Regarding a person who engages in a type of business listed in item (xx) or item (xxi) of the preceding Article, the person shall have established a domestic waste disposal facility prescribed in Article 8, paragraph (1) of
the Waste Disposal and Cleaning Act (Act No. 137 of 1970) or an industrial waste disposal facility prescribed in Article 15, paragraph (1) of said Act.
(f) The person shall have established a specified facility prescribed in Article
2, paragraph (2) of the Act on Special Measures Concerning Dioxins (Act
No. 105 of 1999).
(ii) The person shall regularly employ 21 or more employees.
(Requirements Specified by Cabinet Order Set Forth in Article 2, Paragraph (5), Item (i) of the Act)
Article 5 The requirements specified by Cabinet Order as set forth in Article 2, paragraph (5), item (i) of the Act shall be that a Class I Designated Chemical Substance accounts for 1 percent or more of the total mass of the product or
that a Specific Class I Designated Chemical Substance accounts for 0.1 percent or more of the total mass of the product, and that the product does not fall
under any of the following items:
(i) A product that remains only in the form of a solid while being handled by a business operator and does not become powdered or granulated
(ii) A product in which a Class I Designated Chemical Substance is handled in a hermetically sealed condition
(iii) A product mainly for general consumers' daily use
(iv) Recyclable resources (meaning recyclable resources prescribed in Article 2, paragraph (4) of the Act on the Promotion of Effective Utilization of
Resources (Act No. 48 of 1991); the same shall apply in item (iv) of the following Article)
(Requirements Specified by Cabinet Order Set Forth in Article 2, Paragraph (6)
of the Act)
Article 6 The requirements specified by Cabinet Order as set forth in Article 2, paragraph (6) of the Act shall be that a Class II Designated Chemical
Substance accounts for 1 percent or more of the total mass of the product and that the product does not fall under any of the following items:
(i) A product that remains only in the form of a solid while being handled by a business operator and does not become powdered or granulated
(ii) A product in which a Class II Designated Chemical Substance is used in a
hermetically sealed condition
(iii) A product mainly for general consumers' daily use
(iv) Recyclable resources
(Councils, etc. Specified by Cabinet Order)
Article 7 Councils, etc. set forth in Article 18 of the Act that are specified by
Cabinet Order shall be as listed in the right-hand column of the following table for the respective ministers listed in the left-hand column of said table.

(Amount of Fees, etc.)
Article 8 (1) The amount of fees set forth in Article 19 of the Act (hereinafter
simply referred to as "fees" in this Article) shall be the amount specified in the following items respectively, in accordance with the method of disclosure listed in the relevant items:
(i) Delivery in paper form: 20 yen per a sheet
(ii) Delivery by way of copying information onto a floppy disk (limited to a floppy disk with a width of 90 millimeters, conforming to JIS X6223; the same shall apply in the following Article): 80 yen per disk plus 260 yen each for every 0.5 MB
(iii) Delivery by way of copying information onto an optical disk (limited to an
optical disk with a width of 120 millimeters, conforming to JIS X0606 or
X6281, which can be read by an optical disk drive; the same shall apply in the following Article): 200 yen per disk plus 260 yen each for every 0.5 MB (in the case of delivery by way of copying all information recorded in the file for the fiscal year for which a request for disclosure has been made as
prescribed in Article 10, paragraph (2) of the Act (hereinafter referred to as a
"request for disclosure"), 200 yen per disk plus 900 yen each for every 200
MB)
(iv) By way of allowing a person who receives the disclosure to copy
information to a file stored on a computer (including input-output devices; hereinafter the same shall apply in this item) used by said person through use of an electronic data processing system (meaning an electronic data
processing system connecting a computer used by the competent minister
and a computer used by the person who receives the disclosure through an electric telecommunication line) (limited to cases where a request for
disclosure has been made via an electronic data processing system prescribed
in Article 3, paragraph (1) of the Act on the Use of Information and
Communications Technologies for Administrative Procedures (Act No. 151 of
2002) as prescribed in said paragraph): 100 yen per case plus 240 yen each for every 0.5 MB (in the case of allowing such person to copy all information recorded in the file for the fiscal year for which a request for disclosure has
been made, 100 yen per case plus 880 yen each for every 200 MB)
(2) The fees shall be paid by affixing a revenue stamp to a document on which the facts listed in the items of Article 10, paragraph (2) of the Act have been
entered; provided, however, that the fees may be paid in cash in cases specified
by ordinance of the competent ministry.
(3) A person who receives the disclosure of information recorded in the file may request the sending of a copy thereof by paying the expense required in
addition to the fees. In this case, said expense shall be paid by postage stamp or by similar voucher specified by the competent minister.
(Method of Notification or Request by a Magnetic Disk)
Article 9 A person who intends to provide notification under Article 5, paragraph (2) of the Act or make a request under Article 6, paragraph (1) or paragraph (8) of the Act (hereinafter referred to as a "notification, etc." in this Article) via a
magnetic disk (meaning a floppy disk or an optical disk; the same shall apply hereinafter) shall submit the magnetic disk containing information pertaining to said notification, etc. to the prefectural governor in the case of providing
notification under Article 5, paragraph (2) of the Act, and to the competent minister in the case of making a request under Article 6, paragraph (1) or
paragraph (8) of the Act, as specified by ordinance of the competent ministry.
(Method of Disclosure via Magnetic Disk)
Article 10 When the competent minister provides the disclosure under Article 11 of the Act via a magnetic disk, the minister shall deliver a magnetic disk
containing only the information pertaining to the request for disclosure copied from the information recorded in the file to the person who has made the
request for disclosure.
Supplementary Provisions [Extract] (Effective Date)
Article 1 This Cabinet Order shall come into effect as of the date of enforcement of the Act (March 30, 2000).
(Transitional Measures)
Article 2 During the period up to the day on which two years have passed from the date of enforcement of the provisions listed in Article 1, item (iii) of the
Supplementary Provisions of the Act, the term "1 ton" in Article 4, item (i), (a)
shall be deemed to be replaced with "5 tons."
Supplementary Provisions [Cabinet Order No. 313 of June 7, 2000] [Extract]
(Effective Date)
Article 1 This Cabinet Order shall come into effect as of the date of enforcement of the Act for Partial Revision of the Cabinet Act (Act No. 88 of 1999) (January
6, 2001).
Supplementary Provisions [Cabinet Order No. 56 of March 22, 2001] [Extract]
(Effective Date)
Article 1 This Cabinet Order shall come into effect as of April 1, 2001.
Supplementary Provisions [Cabinet Order No. 441 of December 28, 2001] This Cabinet Order shall come into effect as of the date of enforcement of the
provisions listed in Article 1, item (iii) of the Supplementary Provisions of the
Act (excluding the provisions of Article 5, paragraph (1)) (January 12, 2002).
Supplementary Provisions [Cabinet Order No. 386 of December 18, 2002] [Extract]
(Effective Date)
Article 1 This Cabinet Order shall come into effect as of April 1, 2003.
Supplementary Provisions [Cabinet Order No. 28 of January 31, 2003] [Extract]
(Effective Date)
Article 1 This Cabinet Order shall come into effect as of the date of enforcement of the Act on the Use of Information and Communications Technologies for
Administrative Procedures (February 3, 2003).
Supplementary Provisions [Cabinet Order No. 47 of March 19, 2004] This Cabinet Order shall come into effect as of March 29, 2004.
Supplementary Provisions [Cabinet Order No. 328 of October 27, 2004]
(Effective Date)
Article 1 This Cabinet Order shall come into effect as of April 1, 2005.
(Transitional Measures)
Article 2 Permission, approval and any other disposition made by the Director of the Regional Bureau of Economy, Trade and Industry pursuant to the
provisions of the respective Cabinet Orders prior to their revision before the enforcement of this Cabinet Order (limited to permission, approval and any
other disposition related to the affairs listed in Article 4, paragraph (1), item
(lix) of the Act for Establishment of the Ministry of Economy, Trade and
Industry prior to its revision by Article 2 of the Act for Partial Revision of the
Mine Safety Act and the Act for Establishment of the Ministry of Economy,
Trade and Industry (Act No. 99 of 1999; hereinafter referred to as the "Old Act for Establishment of the Ministry of Economy, Trade and Industry") out of the affairs placed under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Economy, Trade and
Industry pursuant to Article 12, paragraph (2) of the Old Act for Establishment
of the Ministry of Economy, Trade and Industry; hereinafter such permission, approval and any other disposition shall be referred to as a "disposition, etc.") shall be deemed to be a disposition, etc. that has been made by the Director
General of the Industrial Safety and Inspection Department having jurisdiction over the jurisdictional district of the respective Directors of the Regional
Bureau of Economy, Trade and Industry. An application, notification or any
other act that has been filed, provided to or in any way undertaken with regard
to the Director of the Regional Bureau of Economy, Trade and Industry pursuant to the provisions of the respective Cabinet Orders prior to their
revision before the enforcement of this Cabinet Order (limited to an application, notification or any other act related to the affairs listed in Article 4, paragraph (1), item (lix) of the Old Act for Establishment of the Ministry of Economy,
Trade and Industry out of the affairs placed under the jurisdiction of the
Ministry of Economy, Trade and Industry pursuant to Article 12, paragraph (2)
of the Old Act for Establishment of the Ministry of Economy, Trade and
Industry; hereinafter such application, notification or any other act shall be
referred to as an "application, etc.") shall be deemed to be an application, etc. that has been filed with the Director General of the Industrial Safety and
Inspection Department having jurisdiction over the jurisdictional district of the
respective Directors of the Regional Bureau of Economy, Trade and Industry.
Supplementary Provisions [Cabinet Order No. 356 of November 21, 2008] (Effective Date)
(1) This Cabinet Order shall come into effect as of October 1, 2008.
(Transitional Measures)
(2) The provisions of the Order for Enforcement of the Act on Confirmation, etc. of Release Amounts of Specific Chemical Substances in the Environment and Promotion of Improvements to the Management Thereof after the revision by
this Cabinet Order shall apply to the release amount and the transferred
amount of a Class I Designated Chemical Substance prescribed in Article 5,
paragraph (1) of the Act on Confirmation, etc. of Release Amounts of Specific
Chemical Substances in the Environment and Promotion of Improvements to
the Management Thereof (hereinafter referred to as the "release amount, etc.")
to be confirmed in or after FY2010, and the release amount, etc. to be notified
in or after FY2011; and with regard to the release amount, etc. to be confirmed
in FY2009 and the release amount, etc. to be notified in FY2010, the provisions then in force shall remain applicable.
Appended Table 1 (Re. Article 1)
(i) zinc compounds (water-soluble) (ii) acrylamide
(iii) ethyl acrylate
(iv) acrylic acid and its water-soluble salts
(v) 2-(dimethylamino)ethyl acrylate
(vi) 2-hydroxyethyl acrylate
(vii) n-butyl acrylate
(viii) methyl acrylate
(ix) acrylonitrile
(x) acrolein
(xi) sodium azide
(xii) acetaldehyde
(xiii) acetonitrile
(xiv) acetone cyanohydrin
(xv) acenaphthene
(xvi) 2,2'-azobisisobutyronitrile
(xvii) o-anisidine
(xviii) aniline
(xix) 1-amino-9,10-anthraquinone
(xx) 2-aminoethanol
(xxi) 5-amino-4-chloro-2-phenylpyridazin-3(2H)-one; chloridazon
(xxii) 5-amino-1-[2,6-dichloro-4-(trifluoromethyl)phenyl]-3-cyano-
4[(trifluoromethyl)sulfinyl]pyrazole; fipronil
(xxiii) p-aminophenol
(xxiv) m-aminophenol
(xxv) 4-amino-6-tert-butyl-3-methylthio-1,2,4-triazin-5(4H)-one; metribuzin
(xxvi) 3-amino-1-propene
(xxvii) 4-amino-3-methyl-6-phenyl-1,2,4-triazin-5(4H)-one; metamitron
(xxviii) allyl alcohol
(xxix) 1-allyloxy-2,3-epoxypropane
(xxx) n-alkylbenzenesulfonic acid and its salts (alkyl C=10-14) (xxxi) antimony and its compounds
(xxxii) anthracene
(xxxiii) asbestos
(xxxiv) 3-isocyanatomethyl-3,5,5-trimethylcyclohexyl isocyanate
(xxxv) isobutyraldehyde
(xxxvi) isoprene
(xxxvii) 4,4'-isopropylidenediphenol; bisphenol A
(xxxviii) 2,2'-{isopropylidenebis[(2,6-dibromo-4,1-phenylene)oxy]}diethanol
(xxxix) O-ethyl-O-(3-methyl-4-methylthiophenyl) N- isopropylaminophosphonate; fenamiphos
(xl) isopropyl 2-(4-methoxybiphenyl-3-yl)hydrazinoformate; bifenazate
(xli) 3'-isopropoxy-2-trifluoromethylbenzanilide; flutolanil
(xlii) 2-imidazolidinethione
(xliii) 1,1'-[iminodi(octamethylene)]diguanidine; iminoctadine
(xliv) indium and its compounds
(xlv) ethanethiol
(xlvi) ethyl 2-[4-(6-chloro-2-quinoxalinyloxy)phenoxy]propionate; quizalofop- ethyl
(xlvii) O-ethyl O-(6-nitro-m-tolyl)sec-butylphosphoramidothioate; butamifos
(xlviii) O-ethyl O-4-nitrophenyl phenylphosphonothioate; EPN
(xlix) N-(1-ethylpropyl)-2,6-dinitro-3,4-xylidine; pendimethalin
(l) S-ethyl hexahydro-1H-azepine-1-carbothioate; molinate
(li) 2-ethylhexanoic acid
(lii) ethyl (Z)-3-[N-benzyl-N-[[methyl(1-
methylthioethylideneaminooxycarbonyl)amino]thio]amino] propionate;
alanycarb
(liii) ethylbenzene
(liv) O-ethyl S-1-methylpropyl (2-oxo-3-thiazolidinyl)phosphonothioate;
fosthiazate
(lv) ethyleneimine
(lvi) ethylene oxide
(lvii) ethylene glycol monoethyl ether
(lviii) ethylene glycol monomethyl ether
(lix) ethylenediamine
(lx) ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid
(lxi) manganese N,N'-ethylenebis(dithiocarbamate); maneb
(lxii) complex compounds of manganese N,N'-ethylenebis(dithiocarbamate)and zinc N,N'-ethylenebis (dithiocarbamate); mancozeb
(lxiii) 1,1'-ethylene-2,2'-bipyridinium dibromide; diquat dibromide
(lxiv) 2-(4-ethoxyphenyl)-2-methylpropyl 3-phenoxybenzyl ether; etofenprox
(lxv) epichlorohydrin
(lxvi) 1,2-epoxybutane
(lxvii) 2,3-epoxy-1-propanol
(lxviii) 1,2-epoxypropane; propylene oxide
(lxix) 2,3-epoxypropyl phenyl ether
(lxx) emamectin benzoate; mixture of emamectinB1a benzoate and emamectinB1b benzoate
(lxxi) ferric chloride
(lxxii) chlorinated paraffin (C=10-13) (lxxiii) 1-octanol
(lxxiv) p-octylphenol
(lxxv) cadmium and its compounds
(lxxvi) ε-caprolactam
(lxxvii) calcium cyanamide
(lxxviii) 2,4-xylenol
(lxxix) 2,6-xylenol
(lxxx) xylene
(lxxxi) quinoline
(lxxxii) silver and its water-soluble compounds
(lxxxiii) cumene
(lxxxiv) glyoxal
(lxxxv) glutaraldehyde
(lxxxvi) cresol
(lxxxvii) chromium and chromium(III) compounds
(lxxxviii) chromium(VI) compounds
(lxxxix) chloroaniline
(xc) 2-chloro-4-ethylamino-6-isopropylamino-1,3,5-triazine; atrazine
(xci) 2-(4-chloro-6-ethylamino-1,3,5-triazin-2-yl)amino-2- methylpropiononitrile; cyanazine
(xcii) 4-chloro-3-ethyl-1-methyl-N-[4-(p-tolyloxy)benzyl]pyrazole-5-
carboxamide; tolfenpyrad
(xciii) 2-chloro-2'-ethyl-N-(2-methoxy-1-methylethyl)-6'-methylacetanilide;
metolachlor
(xciv) chloroethylene; vinyl chloride
(xcv) 3-chloro-N-(3-chloro-5-trifluoromethyl-2-pyridyl)-α,α,α-trifluoro-2,6- dinitro-p-toluidine; fluazinam
yl}methyl)-1H-1,2,4-triazole; difenoconazole
(xcvii) 1-chloro-2-(chloromethyl)benzene
(xcviii) chloroacetic acid
(xcix) ethyl chloroacetate
(c) 2-chloro-2',6'-diethyl-N-(2-propoxyethyl)acetanilide; pretilachlor
(ci) 2-chloro-2',6'-diethy-N-(methoxymethyl)acetanilide; alachlor
(cii) 1-chloro-2,4-dinitrobenzene
(ciii) 1-chloro-1,1-difluoroethane; HCFC-142b
(civ) chlorodifluoromethane; HCFC-22
(cv) 2-chloro-1,1,1,2-tetrafluoroethane; HCFC-124 (cvi) chlorotrifluoroethane; HCFC-133
(cvii) chlorotrifluoromethane; CFC-13
(cviii) (RS)-2-(4-chloro-o-tolyloxy)propionic acid; mecoprop
(cix) o-chlorotoluene
(cx) p-chlorotoluene
(cxi) 2-chloro-4-nitroaniline
(cxii) 2-chloronitrobenzene
(cxiii) 2-chloro-4,6-bis(ethylamino)-1,3,5-triazine; shimazine; CAT
(cxiv) (RS)-2-[2-(3-chlorophenyl)-2,3-epoxypropyl]-2-ethylindane-1,3-dione;
indanofan
(cxv) 4-(2-chlorophenyl)-N-cyclohexyl-N-ethyl-4,5-dihydro-5-oxo-1H-tetrazole-
1-carboxamide; fentrazamide
(cxvi) (4RS,5RS)-5-(4-chlorophenyl)-N-cyclohexyl-4-methyl-2-oxo-1,3- thiazolidine-3-carboxamide; hexythiazox
(cxvii) (RS)-1-p-chlorophenyl-4,4-dimethyl-3-(1H-1,2,4-triazol-1-
ylmethyl)pentan-3-ol; tebuconazole
(cxviii) 2-(4-chlorophenyl)-2-(1H-1,2,4-triazol-1-ylmethyl)hexanenitrile;
myclobutanil
(cxix) (RS)-4-(4-chlorophenyl)-2-phenyl-2-(1H-1,2,4-triazol-1- ylmethyl)butyronitrile; fenbuconazole
(cxx) o-chlorophenol
(cxxi) p-chlorophenol
(cxxii) 2-chloropropionic acid
(cxxiii) 3-chloropropene; allyl chloride
(cxxiv) 1-(2-chlorobenzyl)-3-(1-methyl-1-phenylethyl)urea; cumyluron
(cxxv) chlorobenzene
(cxxvi) chloropentafluoroethane; CFC-115 (cxxvii) chloroform
(cxxviii) chloromethane; methyl chloride
(cxxix) 4-chloro-3-methylphenol
(cxxx) (4-chloro-2-methylphenoxy)acetic acid; MCP; MCPA (cxxxi) 3-chloro-2-methyl-1-propene
(cxxxii) cobalt and its compounds
(cxxxiii) 2-ethoxyethyl acetate; ethylene glycol monoethyl ether acetate
(cxxxiv) vinyl acetate
(cxxxv) 2-methoxyethyl acetate; ethylene glycol monomethyl ether acetate
(cxxxvi) salicylaldehyde
(cxxxvii) cyanamide
dimethylbutyramide; diclocymet
(cxxxix) (S)-alpha-cyano-3-phenoxybenzyl (1R,3S)-2,2-dimethyl-3-(1,2,2,2- tetrabromoethyl)cyclopropanecarboxylate; tralomethrin
(cxl) (RS)-alpha-cyano-3-phenoxybenzyl 2,2,3,3-
tetramethylcyclopropanecarboxylate; fenpropathrin
(cxli) trans-1-(2-cyano-2-methoxyiminoacetyl)-3-ethylurea; cymoxanil
(cxlii) 2,4-diaminoanisole
(cxliii) 4,4'-diaminodiphenyl ether
(cxliv) inorganic cyanide compounds (except complex salts and cyanates) (cxlv) 2-(diethylamino)ethanol
(cxlvi) O-2-diethylamino-6-methylpyrimidin-4-yl O,O-dimethyl phosphorothioate; pirimiphos-methyl
(cxlvii) S-4-chlorobenzyl N,N-diethylthiocarbamate; thiobencarb
(cxlviii) N,N-diethyl-3-(2,4,6-trimethylphenylsulfonyl)-1H-1,2,4-triazole-1- carboxamide; cafenstrole
(cxlix) tetrachloromethane
(cl) 1,4-dioxane
(cli) 1,3-dioxolane
(clii) 1,3-dicarbamoylthio-2-(N,N-dimethylamino)-propane; cartap
(cliii) cyclohex-1-ene-1,2-dicarboximidomethyl (1RS)-cis-trans-2,2-dimethyl-3- (2-methylprop-1-enyl) cyclopropanecarboxylate; tetramethrin
(cliv) cyclohexylamine
(clv) N-(cyclohexylthio)phthalimide
(clvi) dichloroaniline
(clvii) 1,2-dichloroethane
(clviii) 1,1-Dichloroethylene; vinylydene dichloride
(clix) cis-1,2-dichloroethylene
(clx) 3,3'-dichloro-4,4'-diaminodiphenylmethane
(clxi) dichlorodifluoromethane; CFC-12
(clxii) 3,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl)benzamide; propyzamide
(clxiii) dichlorotetrafluoroethane; CFC-114
(clxiv) 2,2-dichloro-1,1,1-trifluoroethane; HCFC-123 (clxv) 2,4-dichlorotoluene
(clxvi) 1,2-dichloro-4-nitrobenzene
(clxvii) 1,4-dichloro-2-nitrobenzene
(clxviii) 3-(3,5-dichlorophenyl)-N-isopropyl-2,4-dioxoimidazolidine-1- carboxamide; iprodione
(clxix) 3-(3,4-dichlorophenyl)-1,1-dimethylurea; diuron; DCMU
(clxx) (RS)-2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-3-(1H-1,2,4-triazol-1-yl)propyl 1,1,2,2- tetrafluoroethyl ether; tetraconazole
(clxxi) mixture of (2RS,4RS)-1-[2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-4-propyl-1,3-dioxolan-2- ylmethyl]-1H-1,2,4-triazole and (2RS,4SR)-1-[2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-4-propyl-
1,3-dioxolan-2-ylmethyl]-1H-1,2,4-triazole; propiconazole
(clxxii) 3-[1-(3,5-dichlorophenyl)-1-methylethyl]-3,4-dihydro-6-methyl-5- phenyl-2H-1,3-oxazin-4-one; oxaziclomefone
(clxxiii) (RS)-3-(3,5-dichlorophenyl)-5-methyl-5-vinyl-1,3-oxazolidine-2,4- dione; vinclozolin
(clxxiv) 3-(3,4-dichlorophenyl)-1-methoxy-1-methylurea; linuron
(clxxv) 2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid; 2,4-D; 2,4-PA
(clxxvi) 1,1-dichloro-1-fluoroethane; HCFC-141b
(clxxvii) dichlorofluoromethane; HCFC-21 (clxxviii) 1,2-dichloropropane
(clxxix) 1,3-dichloropropene; D-D (clxxx) 3,3'-dichlorobenzidine
(clxxxi) dichlorobenzene
(clxxxii) 2-[4-(2,4-dichlorobenzoyl)-1,3-dimethyl-5-pyrazolyloxy]acetophenone;
pyrazoxyfen
(clxxxiii) 4-(2,4-dichlorobenzoyl)-1,3-dimethyl-5-pyrazolyl 4-toluenesulfonate;
pyrazolynate
(clxxxiv) 2,6-dichlorobenzonitrile; dichlobenil; DBN (clxxxv) dichloropentafluoropropane; HCFC-225
(clxxxvi) dichloromethane; methylene dichloride
(clxxxvii) 2,3-dicyano-1,4-dithiaanthraquinone; dithianon
(clxxxviii) N,N-dicyclohexylamine
(clxxxix) N,N-dicyclohexyl-2-benzothiazolesulfenamide
(cxc) dicyclopentadiene
(cxci) diisopropyl 1,3-dithiolan-2-ylidenemalonate; isoprothiolane
(cxcii) O-ethyl S,S-diphenyl phosphorodithioate; edifenphos; EDDP
(cxciii) O,O-diethyl S-2-(ethylthio)ethyl phosphorodithioate; ethylthiometon;
disulfoton
(cxciv) O,O-diethyl S-(6-chloro-2,3-dihydro-2-oxobenzoxazolinyl)methyl phosphorodithioate; phosalone
(cxcv) O-2,4-dichlorophenyl O-ethyl S-propyl phosphorodithioate; prothiofos (cxcvi) S-(2,3-dihydro-5-methoxy-2-oxo-1,3,4-thiadiazol-3-yl)methyl O,O- dimethylphosphorodithioate; methidathion; DMTP
(cxcvii) O,O-dimethyl S-1,2-bis(ethoxycarbonyl)ethyl phosphorodithioate;
malathon;malathion
(cxcviii) O,O-dimethyl S-(N-methylcarbamoyl)methyl phosphorodithioate;
dimethoate
(cxcix) disodium 2,2'-vinylenebis[5-(4-morpholino-6-anilino-1,3,5-triazin-2- ylamino)benzenesulfonate]; C.I. Fluorescent 260
(cc) dinitrotoluene
(cci) 2,4-dinitrophenol
(ccii) divinylbenzene
(cciii) diphenylamine
(cciv) diphenyl ether
(ccv) 1,3-diphenylguanidine
(ccvi) 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-7-benzo[b]furyl N-(dibutylamino)thio-N- methylcarbamate; carbosulfan
(ccvii) 2,6-di-tert-butyl-4-cresol
(ccviii) 2,4-di-tert-butylphenol
(ccix) dibromochloromethane
(ccx) 2,2-dibromo-2-cyanoacetamide
(ccxi) dibromotetrafluoroethane; halone-2402
(ccxii) (RS)-O,S-dimethyl acetylphosphoramidothioate; acephate
(ccxiii) N,N-dimethylacetamide
(ccxiv) 2,4-dimethylaniline
(ccxv) 2,6-dimethylaniline
(ccxvi) N,N-dimethylaniline
(ccxvii) 5-dimethylamino-1,2,3-trithiane; thiocyclam
(ccxviii) dimethylamine
(ccxix) dimethyl disulfide
(ccxx) water-soluble salts of dimethyldithiocarbamic acid
(ccxxi) 2,2-dimethyl-2,3-dihydro-1-benzofuran-7-yl N-[N-(2-
ethoxycarbonylethyl)-N-isopropylsulfenamoyl]-N-methylcarbamate;
benfuracarb
(ccxxii) S-4-phenoxybutyl N,N-dimethylthiocarbamate; phenothiocarb
(ccxxiii) N,N-dimethyldodecylamine
(ccxxiv) N,N-dimethyldodecylamine N-oxide
(ccxxv) dimethyl 2,2,2-trichloro-1-hydroxyethylphosphonate; trichlorfon; DEP (ccxxvi) 1,1-dimethylhydrazine
(ccxxvii) 1,1'-dimethyl-4,4'-bipyridinium dichloride; paraquat; paraquat
dichloride
(ccxxviii) 3,3'-dimethylbiphenyl-4,4'-diyl diisocyanate
(ccxxix) dimethyl 4,4'-(o-phenylene)bis(3-thioallophanate); thiophanate- methyl
(ccxxx) N-(1,3-dimethylbutyl)-N'-phenyl-p-phenylenediamine
(ccxxxi) 3,3'-dimethylbenzidine; o-tolidine
(ccxxxii) N,N-dimethylformamide
(ccxxxiii) ethyl 2-[(dimethoxyphosphinothioyl)thio]-2-phenylacetate;
phenthoate; PAP
(ccxxxiv) bromine
(ccxxxv) water-soluble salts of bromic acid
(ccxxxvi) 3,5-diiodo-4-octanoyloxybenzonitrile; ioxynil octanoate
(ccxxxvii) mercury and its compounds
(ccxxxviii) hydrogenated terphenyl
(ccxxxix) organic tin compounds
(ccxl) styrene
(ccxli) sodium salt of 2-sulfohexadecanoic acid 1-methyl ester
(ccxlii) selenium and its compounds
(ccxliii) dioxins
(ccxliv) 2-thioxo-3,5-dimethyltetrahydro-2H-1,3,5-thiadiazine; dazomet
(ccxlv) thiourea
(ccxlvi) thiophenol
(ccxlvii) O-1-(4-chlorophenyl)-4-pyrazolyl O-ethyl S-propyl phosphorothioate;
pyraclofos
(ccxlviii) O,O-diethyl O-2-isopropyl-6-methyl-4-pyrimidinyl phosphorothioate;
diazinon
(ccxlix) O,O-diethyl O-3,5,6-trichloro-2-pyridyl phosphorothioate; chlorpyrifos
(ccl) O,O-diethyl O-5-phenyl-3-isoxazolyl phosphorothioate; isoxathion
(ccli) O,O-dimethyl O-3-methyl-4-nitrophenyl phosphorothioate; fenitrothion; MEP
(cclii) O,O-dimethyl O-3-methyl-4-(methylthio)phenyl phosphorothioate;
fenthion; MPP
(ccliii) O-4-bromo-2-chlorophenyl O-ethyl S-propyl phosphorothioate;
profenofos
(ccliv) S-benzyl O,O-diisopropyl phosphorothioate; iprobenfos; IBP (cclv) decabromodiphenyl ether
(cclvi) decanoic acid
(cclvii) decyl alcohol; decanol
(cclviii) 1,3,5,7-tetraazatricyclo[3.3.1.1(3.7)]decane; hexamethylenetetramine
(cclix) tetraethylthiuram disulfide; disulfiram
(cclx) tetrachloroisophthalonitrile; chlorothalonil; TPN
(cclxi) 4,5,6,7-tetrachloroisobenzofuran-1(3H)-one; phthalide
(cclxii) tetrachloroethylene
(cclxiii) tetrachlorodifluoroethane; CFC-112 (cclxiv) 2,3,5,6-tetrachloro-p-benzoquinone
(cclxv) tetrahydromethylphthalic anhydride
(cclxvi) 2,3,5,6-tetrafluoro-4-methylbenzyl (Z)-3-(2-chloro-3,3,3-trifluoro-1- propenyl)-2,2-dimethylcyclopropanecarboxylate; tefluthrin
(cclxvii) 3,7,9,13-tetramethyl-5,11-dioxa-2,8,14-trithia-4,7,9,12- tetraazapentadeca-3,12-diene-6,10-dione; thiodicarb
(cclxviii) tetramethylthiuram disulfide; thiram
(cclxix) 3,7,11,15-tetramethylhexadec-1-en-3-ol; isophytol
(cclxx) terephthalic acid
(cclxxi) dimethyl terephthalate
(cclxxii) copper salts (water-soluble, except complex salts) (cclxxiii) 1-dodecanol; n-dodecyl alcohol
(cclxxiv) tert-dodecanethiol
(cclxxv) sodium dodecyl sulfate
(cclxxvi) 3,6,9-triazaundecane-1,11-diamine; tetraethylenepentamine
(cclxxvii) triethylamine
(cclxxviii) triethylenetetramine
(cclxxix) 1,1,1-trichloroethane
(cclxxx) 1,1,2-trichloroethane
(cclxxxi) trichloroethylene
(cclxxxii) trichloroacetic acid
(cclxxxiii) 2,4,6-trichloro-1,3,5-triazine
(cclxxxiv) trichlorotrifluoroethane; CFC-113
(cclxxxv) trichloronitromethane; chloropicrin
(cclxxxvi) (3,5,6-trichloro-2-pyridyl)oxyacetic acid; triclopyr
(cclxxxvii) 2,4,6-trichlorophenol
(cclxxxviii) trichlorofluoromethane; CFC-11 (cclxxxix) 1,2,3-trichloropropane
(ccxc) trichlorobenzene
(ccxci) 1,3,5-tris(2,3-epoxypropyl)-1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6(1H,3H,5H)-trione
(ccxcii) tributylamine
(ccxciii) α,α,α-trifluoro-2,6-dinitro-N,N-dipropyl-p-toluidine; trifluralin
(ccxciv) 2,4,6-tribromophenol
(ccxcv) 3,5,5-trimethyl-1-hexanol
(ccxcvi) 1,2,4-trimethylbenzene
(ccxcvii) 1,3,5-trimethylbenzene
(ccxcviii) tolylene diisocyanate
(ccxcix) toluidine
(ccc) toluene
(ccci) toluenediamine
(cccii) naphthalene
(ccciii) 1,5-naphthalenediyl diisocyanate
(ccciv) lead
(cccv) lead compounds
(cccvi) hexamethylene diacrylate
(cccvii) zirconium dichloride oxide
(cccviii) nickel
(cccix) nickel compounds
(cccx) nitrilotriacetic acid
(cccxi) o-nitroanisole
(cccxii) o-nitroaniline
(cccxiii) nitroglycerin
(cccxiv) p-nitrochlorobenzene
(cccxv) o-nitrotoluene
(cccxvi) nitrobenzene
(cccxvii) nitromethane
(cccxviii) carbon disulfide
(cccxix) 1-nonanol; n-nonyl alcohol
(cccxx) nonylphenol
(cccxxi) vanadium compounds
(cccxxii) 5'-[N,N-bis(2-acetyloxyethyl)amino]-2'-(2-bromo-4,6- dinitrophenylazo)-4'-methoxyacetanilide
(cccxxiii) 2,4-bis(ethylamino)-6-methylthio-1,3,5-triazine; simetryn
(cccxxiv) 1,3-bis[(2,3-epoxypropyl)oxy]benzene
(cccxxv) bis(8-quinolinolato)copper; oxine-copper
(cccxxvi) 3,6-bis(2-chlorophenyl)-1,2,4,5-tetrazine; clofentezine
(cccxxvii) 1,2-bis(2-chlorophenyl)hydrazine
(cccxxviii) zinc bis(N,N'-dimethyldithiocarbamate); ziram
(cccxxix) N,N'-ethylenebis(thiocarbamoylthiozinc)bis(N,N- dimethyldithiocarbamate); polycarbamate
(cccxxx) bis(1-methyl-1-phenylethyl) peroxide
(cccxxxi) S,S-bis(1-methylpropyl) O-ethyl phosphorodithioate; cadusafos
(cccxxxii) arsenic and its inorganic compounds
(cccxxxiii) hydrazine
(cccxxxiv) methyl 4-hydroxybenzoate
(cccxxxv) N-(4-hydroxyphenyl)acetamide
(cccxxxvi) hydroquinone
(cccxxxvii) 4-vinyl-1-cyclohexene
(cccxxxviii) 2-vinylpyridine
(cccxxxix) N-vinyl-2-pyrrolidone
(cccxl) biphenyl
(cccxli) piperazine
(cccxlii) pyridine
(cccxliii) pyrocatechol
(cccxliv) phenyloxirane
(cccxlv) phenylhydrazine
(cccxlvi) 2-phenylphenol
(cccxlvii) N-phenylmaleimide
(cccxlviii) phenylenediamine
(cccxlix) phenol
(cccl) 3-phenoxybenzyl 3-(2,2-dichlorovinyl)-2,2- dimethylcyclopropanecarboxylate; permethrin
(cccli) 1,3-butadiene
(cccliii) diethyl phthalate
(cccliv) di-n-butyl phthalate
(ccclv) bis(2-ethylhexyl)phthalate
(ccclvi) n-butyl benzyl phthalate
(ccclvii) 2-tert-butylimino-3-isopropyl-5-phenyltetrahydro-4H-1,3,5- thiadiazin-4-one; buprofezin
(ccclviii) N-tert-butyl-N'-(4-ethylbenzoyl)-3,5-dimethylbenzohydrazide;
tebufenozide
(ccclix) n-butyl-2,3-epoxypropyl ether
(ccclx) methyl N-[1-(N-n-butylcarbamoyl)-1H-2-benzimidazolyl]carbamate;
benomyl
(ccclxi) butyl(R)-2-[4-(4-cyano-2-fluorophenoxy)phenoxy]propionate; cyhalofop- butyl
(ccclxii) 1-tert-butyl-3-(2,6-diisopropyl-4-phenoxyphenyl)thiourea;
diafenthiuron
(ccclxiii) 5-tert-butyl-3-(2,4-dichloro-5-isopropoxyphenyl)-1,3,4-oxadiazol-
2(3H)-one; oxadiazon
(ccclxiv) tert-butyl 4-({[(1,3-dimethyl-5-phenoxy-4-
pyrazolyl)methylidene]aminooxy}methyl)benzoate; fenpyroximate
(ccclxv) butylhydroxyanisole; BHA (ccclxvi) tert-butyl hydroperoxide
(ccclxvii) o-sec-butylphenol
(ccclxviii) 4-tert-butylphenol
(ccclxix) 2-(4-tert-butylphenoxy)cyclohexyl 2-propynyl sulfite; propargite; BPPS
(ccclxx) 2-tert-butyl-5-(4-tert-butylbenzylthio)-4-chloro-3(2H)-pyridazinone;
pyridaben
(ccclxxi) N-(4-tert-butylbenzyl)-4-chloro-3-ethyl-1-methylpyrazole-5- carboxamide; tebufenpyrad
(ccclxxii) N-(tert-butyl)-2-benzothiazolesulfenamide
(ccclxxiii) 2-tert-butyl-5-methylphenol
(ccclxxiv) hydrogen fluoride and its water-soluble salts
(ccclxxv) 2-butenal
(ccclxxvi) N-butoxymethyl-2-chloro-2',6'-diethylacetanilide; butachlor
(ccclxxvii) furan
(ccclxxviii) polymer of N,N'-propylenebis(dithiocarbamic acid)and zinc;
propineb
(ccclxxix) 2-propyn-1-ol
(ccclxxx) bromochlorodifluoromethane; halone-1211 (ccclxxxi) bromodichloromethane
(ccclxxxii) bromotrifluoromethane; halone-1301
(ccclxxxiii) 5-bromo-3-sec-butyl-6-methyl-1,2,3,4-tetrahydropyrimidine-2,4- dione; bromacil
(ccclxxxiv) 1-bromopropane
(ccclxxxv) 2-bromopropane
(ccclxxxvi) bromomethane; methyl bromide
(ccclxxxvii) hexakis(2-methyl-2-phenylpropyl)distannoxane; fenbutatin oxide
(ccclxxxviii) 6,7,8,9,10,10-hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-6,9-methano-
2,4,3-benzodioxathiepine 3-oxide; endosulfan
(cccxc) hexamethylenediamine
(cccxci) hexamethylene diisocyanate
(cccxcii) n-hexane
(cccxciii) betanaphthol
(cccxciv) beryllium and its compounds
(cccxcv) water-soluble salts of peroxodisulfuric acid
(cccxcvi) perfluoro(octane-1-sulfonic acid); PFOS (cccxcvii) benzylidyne trichloride
(cccxcviii) benzyl chloride
(cccxcix) benzaldehyde
(cd) benzene
(cdi) 1,2,4-benzenetricarboxylic 1,2-anhydride
(cdii) 2-(2-benzothiazolyloxy)-N-methylacetanilide; mefenacet
(cdiii) benzophenone
(cdiv) pentachlorophenol
(cdv) boron compounds
(cdvi) polychlorinated biphenyls; PCBs
(cdvii) poly(oxyethylene)alkyl ether (alkyl C=12-15) (cdviii) poly(oxyethylene)octylphenyl ether
(cdix) sodium poly(oxyethylene) dodecyl ether sulfate
(cdx) poly(oxyethylene)nonylphenyl ether
(cdxi) formaldehyde
(cdxii) manganese and its compounds
(cdxiii) phthalic anhydride
(cdxiv) maleic anhydride
(cdxv) methacrylic acid
(cdxvi) 2-ethylhexyl methacrylate
(cdxvii) 2,3-epoxypropyl methacrylate
(cdxviii) 2-(dimethylamino)ethyl methacrylate
(cdxix) n-butyl methacrylate
(cdxx) methyl methacrylate
(cdxxi) 4-methylideneoxetan-2-one
(cdxxii) (Z)-2'-methylacetophenone 4,6-dimethyl-2-pyrimidinylhydrazone;
ferimzone
(cdxxiii) methylamine
(cdxxiv) methyl isothiocyanate
(cdxxv) 2-isopropylphenyl N-methylcarbamate; isoprocarb; MIPC
(cdxxvi) 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-7-benzo[b]furanyl N-methylcarbamate;
carbofuran
(cdxxvii) 1-naphthyl N-methylcarbamate; carbaryl; NAC
(cdxxviii) 2-sec-butylphenyl N-methylcarbamate; fenobucarb; BPMC
(cdxxix) methyl 3-chloro-5-(4,6-dimethoxy-2-pyrimidinylcarbamoylsulfamoyl)-
1-methylpyrazole-4-carboxylate; halosulfuron-methyl
(cdxxx) methyl (S)-7-chloro-2,3,4a,5-tetrahydro-2-[methoxycarbonyl(4- trifluoromethoxyphenyl) carbamoyl]indeno[1,2-e][1,3,4]oxadiazine-4a- carboxylate; indoxacarb
(cdxxxi) methyl (E)-2-[2-[6-(2-cyanophenoxy)pyrimidin-4-yloxy]phenyl]-3- methoxyacrylate; azoxystrobin
(cdxxxii) 3-methyl-1,5-di(2,4-xylyl)-1,3,5-triazapenta-1,4-diene; amitraz
(cdxxxiv) methyl-N',N'-dimethyl-N-[(methylcarbamoyl)oxy]-1- thiooxamimidate; oxamyl
(cdxxxv) 36methyl 2-(4,6-dimethoxy-2-pyrimizinyloxy)-6-[1- (methoxyimino)ethyl]benzoate; pyriminobac-methyl
(cdxxxvi) α-methylstyrene
(cdxxxvii) 3-methylthiopropanal
(cdxxxviii) methylnaphthalene
(cdxxxix) 3-methylpyridine
(cdxl) 1-methyl-1-phenylethyl hydroperoxide
(cdxli) 2-(1-methylpropyl)-4,6-dinitrophenol
(cdxlii) 2-methyl-N-[3-(1-methylethoxy)phenyl]benzamide; mepronil
(cdxliii) S-methyl-N-(methylcarbamoyloxy)thioacetimidate; methomyl
(cdxliv) methyl (E)-methoxyimino-[2-[[[[(E)-1-[3-
(trifluoromethyl)phenyl]ethylidene]amino]oxy]methyl] phenyl]acetate;
trifloxystrobin
(cdxlv) methyl (E)-methoxyimino[2-(o-tolyloxymethyl)phenyl]acetate;
kresoxim-methyl
(cdxlvi) 4,4'-methylenedianiline
(cdxlvii) methylenebis(4,1-cyclohexylene)diisocyanate
(cdxlviii) methylenebis(4,1-phenylene) diisocyanate
(cdxlix) 3-methoxycarbonylaminophenyl 3'-methylcarbanilate; phenmedipham
(cdl) O-3-tert-butylphenyl N-(6-methoxy-2-pyridyl)-N-methylthiocarbamate;
pyributicarb
(cdli) 2-methoxy-5-methylaniline
(cdlii) 2-mercaptobenzothiazole
(cdliii) molybdenum and its compounds
(cdliv) 2-(morpholinodithio) benzothiazole
(cdlv) morpholine
(cdlvi) aluminium phosphide
(cdlvii) dimethyl 2,2-dichlorovinyl phosphate; dichlorvos; DDVP (cdlviii) tris(2-ethylhexyl) phosphate
(cdlix) tris(2-chloroethyl)phosphate
(cdlx) tritolyl phosphate
(cdlxi) triphenyl phosphate
(cdlxii) tri-n-butyl phosphate
Appended Table 2 (Re. Article 2) (i) acetamide
(ii) p-anisidine
(iii) 5-amino-1-(2,6-dichloro-4-trifluoromethylphenyl)-4-ethylsulfinyl-1H- pyrazole-3-carbonitrile; ethiprole
(iv) 3-amino-1H-1,2,4-triazole; amitrole
(v) 3'-amino-4'-methoxyacetanilide
(vi) 4-allyl-1,2-dimethoxybenzene
(vii) sodium alkyl sulfate (alkyl C=16-18) (viii) urethane
(ix) N-ethylaniline
(x) 2-ethylamino-4-isopropylamino-6-methylthio-1,3,5-triazine; ametryn
(xi) ethyl 3-phenylcarbamoyloxycarbanilate; desmedipham
isoxaben
(xiii) 5-ethoxy-3-trichloromethyl-1,2,4-thiadiazole; echlomezol
(xiv) 1,2-epoxy-3-(tolyloxy)propane
(xv) 4,4'-oxybisbenzenesulfonylhydrazide
(xvi) chloroacetaldehyde
(xvii) (RS)-1-[3-chloro-4-(1,1,2-trifluoro-2-trifluoromethoxyethoxy)phenyl]-3- (2,6-difluorobenzoyl)urea; novaluron
(xviii) (1'S-trans)-7-chloro-2',4,6-trimethoxy-6'-methylspiro[benzofuran-
2(3H),1'-cyclohex-2'-ene]-3,4'-dione; griseofulvin
(xix) 1-chloronaphthalene
(xx) benzyl acetate
(xxi) safrole
(xxii) (S)-alpha-cyano-3-phenoxybenzyl (S)-2-(4-chlorophenyl)-3- methylbutyrate; esfenvalerate
(xxiii) alpha-cyano-4-fluoro-3-phenoxybenzyl 3-(2,2-dichlorovinyl)-2,2-
dimethylcyclopropanecarboxylate; cyfluthrin
(xxiv) trans-1,2-dichloroethylene
(xxv) dichloroacetic acid
(xxvi) 1-(3,5-dichloro-2,4-difluorophenyl)-3-(2,6-difluorobenzoyl)urea;
teflubenzuron
(xxvii) 1,3-dichloro-5,5-dimethylimidazolidine-2,4-dione
(xxviii) 2-[4-(2,4-dichloro-m-toluoyl)-1,3-dimethyl-5-pyrazolyloxy]-4- methylacetophenone; benzofenap
(xxix) 2,4-dichloro-1-nitrobenzene
(xxx) 2,2-dichloro-N-[2-hydroxy-1-(hydroxymethyl)-2-(4- nitrophenyl)ethyl]acetamide; chloramphenicol
(xxxi) N-(2,3-dichloro-4-hydroxyphenyl)-1-methylcyclohexanecarboxamide;
fenhexamid
(xxxii) 2,4'-dichloro-α-(5-pyrimidinyl)benzhydryl alcohol; fenarimol
(xxxiii) 2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-1-(1H-1,2,4-triazol-1-yl)-2-hexanol;
hexaconazole
(xxxiv) 2,4-dichlorophenol
(xxxv) (RS)-2-(2,4-dichlorophenoxy)propionic acid; dichlorprop
(xxxvi) 1,3-dichloro-2-propanol
(xxxvii) (RS)-1-[2,5-dichloro-4-(1,1,2,3,3,3-hexafluoropropoxy)phenyl]-3-(2,6- difluorobenzoyl)urea; lufenuron
(xxxviii) 3,3'-dichlorobenzidine dihydrochloride
(xxxix) disodium 4-amino-3-[4'-(2,4-diaminophenylazo)-1,1'-biphenyl-4-ylazo]-
5-hydroxy-6-phenylazo-2,7-naphthalenedisulfonate; C.I. Direct Black 38 (xl) disodium 8-(3,3'-dimethyl-4'-{4-[(p-tolyl)sulfonyloxy]phenylazo}-1,1'- biphenyl-4-ylazo)-7-hydroxy-1,3-naphthalenedisulfo; C.I. Acid Red 114
(xli) 2,4-dinitroaniline
(xlii) dinitronaphthalene
(xliii) m-dinitrobenzene
(xliv) 2,3-dihydro-6-propyl-2-thioxo-4(1H)-pyrimidinone; propylthiouracil
(xlv) 1,2-dibromoethane; EDB; ethylene dibromide
(xlvi) 1,4-dibromobutane
(xlvii) 2,3-dibromo-1-propanol
(xlviii) 1,3-dibromopropane
(li) [4-[[4-(dimethylamino)phenyl](phenyl)methylidene]cyclohexa-2,5-dien-1- ylidene](dimethyl)ammonium chloride; malachite green chloride
(lii) dimethylcarbamoyl chloride
(liii) O,O-dimethyl-O-(3-methyl-4-methylsulfinylphenyl)-thiophosphate;
mesulfenfos
(liv) brominated biphenyl (Br=2-5)
(lv) 2-(1,3-thiazol-4-yl)-1H-benzoimidazole
(lvi) thioacetamide
(lvii) 2-(thiocyanatomethylthio)-1,3-benzothiazole; TCMTB
(lviii) O,O-diethyl O-6-oxo-1-phenyl-1,6-dihydro-3-pyridazinyl phosphorothioate; pyridaphenthion
(lix) O-3,5,6-trichloro-2-pyridyl O,O-dimethyl phosphorothioate; chlorpyrifos- methyl
(lx) 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane
(lxi) tetrasodium 3,3'-[(3,3'-dimethoxy-1,1'-biphenyl-4,4'-diyl)bis(azo)]bis[5- amino-4-hydroxy-2,7-naphthalenedisulfonate]; C.I. Direct Blue 15
(lxii) tetrabromomethane
(lxiii) o-terphenyl
(lxiv) 1,1,1-trichloro-2,2-bis(4-methoxyphenyl)ethane; methoxychlor
(lxv) iron tris(N,N-dimethyldithiocarbamate); ferbam
(lxvi) tribromomethane; bromoform
(lxvii) sodium 3-(N-{4-[(4-{dimethylamino}phenyl)(4-{N-ethyl[(3-
sulfonatophenyl)methyl]amino}phenyl)methylene]-2,5-cyclohexadien-1- ylidene}-N-ethylammonio)benzenesulfonate; C.I. Acid Violet 49
(lxviii) sodium 1,1'-biphenyl-2-olate
(lxix) m-nitroaniline
(lxx) N-nitrosodiphenylamine
(lxxi) m-nitrotoluene
(lxxii) p-nitrophenol
(lxxiii) palygorskite; attapulgite
(lxxiv) 3,3-bis(4-hydroxyphenyl)-1,3-dihydroisobenzofuran-1-one;
phenolphthalein
(lxxv) 4,4'-bipyridyl
(lxxvi) 1-(4-biphenylyloxy)-3,3-dimethyl-1-(1H-1,2,4-triazol-1-yl)-2-butanol;
bitertanol
(lxxvii) p-phenetidine
(lxxviii) dicyclohexyl phthalate
(lxxix) 1,3-propanesultone
(lxxx) N-propyl-N-[2-(2,4,6-trichlorophenoxy)ethyl]imidazole-1-carboxamide;
prochloraz
(lxxxi) 3-bromo-1-propene; allyl bromide
(lxxxii) hexachloroethane
(lxxxiii) hexachlorocyclopentadiene
(lxxxiv) 1,4,5,6,7,7-hexachlorobicyclo[2.2.1]-5-heptene-2,3-dicarboxylic acid;
chlorendic acid
(lxxxv) hexadecyltrimethylammonium bromide
(lxxxvi) 5-benzyl-3-furylmethyl (1RS)-cis-trans-2,2-dimethyl-3-(2-methylprop-
1-enyl)cyclopropanecarboxylate; resmethrin
(lxxxix) ammonium pentadecafluorooctanoate
(xc) N-methylaniline
(xci) 6-methyl-1,3-dithiolo[4,5-b]quinoxalin-2-one
(xcii) 2-methyl-5-nitroaniline
(xciii) methylhydrazine
(xciv) 2-methyl-1,1'-biphenyl-3-ylmethyl (Z)-3-(2-chloro-3,3,3-trifluoro-1- propenyl)-2,2-dimethylcyclopropanecarboxylate; bifenthrin
(xcv) methyl benzoimidazol-2-ylcarbamate; carbendazim
(xcvi) 4,4'-methylenebis(N,N-dimethylaniline)
(xcvii) 4,4'-methylenebis(2-methylcyclohexaneamine) (xcviii) hydrazine sulfate
(xcix) 2-ethylhexyl diphenyl phosphate
(c) di-n-butyl phenyl phosphate